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Entry and Entry Summary: practice questions · page 2

  1. 26.How long does an importer have to file an application with the Port Director for abatement or refund of duties resulting from the destruction of merchandise in an accidental fire while located in a Customs Bonded Warehouse?

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    Correct answer: a) Within thirty (30) days of the importer's discovery of the destruction

    Reference: 19 CFR 158.23

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of May 2024

  2. 27.Within how many business days after the arrival of any portion of an in-bond shipment at the port of destination or the port of exportation must CBP be notified via a CBP- approved electronic data interface (EDI) system that the merchandise has arrived?

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    Correct answer: a) Two (2) days.

    Reference: 19 CFR 18.1(j)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2023

  3. 28.A nominal consignee is unable to secure the services of a broker to make entry on his behalf. What option is available to the nominal consignee?

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    Correct answer: d) He may notify the owner or the purchaser to designate a licensed Customs broker to make entry

    Reference: Customs Directive Right to Make Entry # 3530-002A § 2, 5.1, 5.5.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2018

  4. 29.Which CBP Form may be used for giving power of attorney (POA) to transact customs business?

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    Correct answer: b) CBP Form 5291

    Reference: 19 CFR 141.32

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  5. 30.Which ONE of the following scenarios qualify to pass free of duty and tax pursuant to 19 CFR 145.31 without preparing an entry as provided for in 19 CFR 145.12? The merchandise is not subject to quota.

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    Correct answer: a) B-C Customs Brokers, on behalf of nominal consignee, Kushi, an online retailer organized and based in India, files a manifest as the entry document for a container of 1000 packages addressed to the 1000 U.S. purchasers of sets of jade figurines (figurines of semiprecious stones) which retail for the equivalent of $799.00 per set in India and sold for $879.00 per set to the U.S. purchasers in the U.S.

    Reference: 19 CFR 145.31

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2025

  6. 31.Hagen Industries Limited (“Hagen”) imported two containers of 1000-piece jigsaw puzzles from Poland, and is identified as the consignee on the bill of lading for the shipment. The puzzles were transported to the Port of Los Angeles-Long Beach by vessel. Twenty (20) calendar days after arrival and unlading at the port, no entry had been filed for the puzzles. The port director properly took custody of both containers and deposited them in a general order warehouse at Hagen’s expense. How long from the date of importation can the puzzles remain in the warehouse before they become subject to sale?

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    Correct answer: b) 6 months

    Reference: 19 CFR 127.4

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2025

  7. 32.What status designation should be applied to merchandise taken into a Foreign Trade Zone for the sole purpose of exportation, destruction or storage?

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    Correct answer: e) Zone-Restricted Status

    Reference: 19 CFR 146.44 (a) & (b), 19 CFR 146.41 (a) & (b), 19 CFR 146.42 (a), (b), (c) & 19 CFR 146.42 (a) (b) (c) and 19 CFR 146.1 (b)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2018

  8. 33.Which of the following is used to identify and trace merchandise within a Foreign Trade Zone (FTZ)?

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    Correct answer: c) Zone Lot Number

    Reference: 19 CFR 146.23

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  9. 34.For a first violation, Customs and Border Protection may impose a civil fine on any person who directs, assists financially or otherwise, or aids and abets the importation of merchandise seized for bearing counterfeit marks in the amount of:

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    Correct answer: b) Not more than the value of the merchandise had it been genuine, according to the manufacturer's suggested retail price in the United States at the time of seizure.

    Reference: 19 CFR 133.27(a)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2025

  10. 35.Which motor vehicles may be imported by any person and do not have to be shown in compliance with emissions requirements before they are entitled to admissibility?

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    Correct answer: a) Gasoline-fueled light-duty trucks and light-duty motor vehicles manufactured before January 1, 1968.

    Reference: 19 CFR 12.73(e)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2025

  11. 36.An individual who qualifies as an importer of record under 19 USC 1484 may authorize an unpaid agent to enter merchandise on their behalf, so long as ___________________.

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    Correct answer: e) The individual is not a regular importer, the appointment is for a single non-commercial shipment, and the authorization is made by executing a power of attorney.

    Reference: Right to Make Entry Section 5.14.1, 19 CFR § 141.33

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2021

  12. 37.What type of rejected merchandise is eligible for substitution drawback under 19 CFR 190.45?

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    Correct answer: d) Merchandise that was ultimately sold at retail and returned for any reason.

    Reference: 19 CFR 190.45

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2026

  13. 38.There are eleven classes of Customs warehouses. What would be the correct class number for “duty-free stores”?

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    Correct answer: d) Class 9

    Reference: 19 CFR Part 19 Section 19.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  14. 39.Which one of the forms below is used to apply to manipulate imported merchandise?

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    Correct answer: c) CBP Form 3499

    Reference: 19 CFR 19.11(d)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2023

  15. 40.Merchandise that is not subject to a quantitative or tariff-rate quota is entered into a bonded warehouse located at the Port of Miami, on October 2, 2017. Subsequently, this merchandise is withdrawn from warehouse and covered by an entry for immediate transportation, which CBP accepts on October 16, 2017. The merchandise is then transported to the Port of Omaha, the port designated by the consignee, and arrives within the port limits on October 18, 2017. Entry documentation for consumption is filed in proper form and CBP authorizes the release of merchandise on October 19, 2017. Finally, entry summary for the merchandise is filed on October 20, 2017. What rate of duty applies to this merchandise?

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    Correct answer: b) The rate in effect on October 16, 2017

    Reference: 19CFR141.68 and 69

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2019

  16. 41.Importer Sunny Solar Panels filed an entry for a shipment that arrived in the Los Angeles/Long Beach seaport on March 1, 2020. Sunny Solar Panels filed an entry summary on March 3, 2020, and tendered all duties, taxes, and fees owed. The merchandise was released from U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) custody on March 3, 2020. CBP liquidated the entry on January 22, 2021. Upon reviewing the liquidation, Sunny Solar Panels realized that due to a clerical error they overpaid harbor maintenance fees. What is the deadline for Sunny Solar Panels to file a protest?

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    Correct answer: b) Within 180 days of January 22, 2021

    Reference: 19 CFR 174.12(e)(1)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2025

  17. 42.How long can merchandise be stored in a class 2 bonded warehouse?

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    Correct answer: d) 5 years from “Date of Importation”

    Reference: 19 CFR 144.5

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  18. 43.A principal will be transporting goods arriving by truck from Mexico. These goods will be entered into a Bonded Warehouse temporarily, and then entered into the Commerce of the United States. All of the following statements are true, EXCEPT:

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    Correct answer: b) A Foreign Trade Zone Operator Bond is required because the goods originated in Mexico.

    Reference: 19CFR113.62, 63, 64 and 113.73

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2019

  19. 44.In which General Note (GN) to the Harmonized Tariff Schedule of the United States (HTSUS) is the Peru Trade Promotion Agreement (PTPA) Implementation Act found?

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    Correct answer: c) GN 32

    Reference: General Note 32

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2021

  20. 45.Which one of the following matters is NOT subject to protest under 19 USC 1514?

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    Correct answer: c) The refusal to reliquidate an entry made before December 18, 2006, under 19 USC 1520(c)

    Reference: 19 CFR 174.11

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of May 2024

  21. 46.Calendar above provided for reference. What is the effective date of the termination of a bond under the following circumstances? On August 29, 2023 a broker, as the principal on its bond, emailed a written letter signed by the broker and dated August 28, 2023, to CBP’s Revenue Division requesting that its bond with its surety be terminated. The broker did not include a termination date in its written request. CBP received the email request and letter on August 29, 2023.

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    Correct answer: d) September 13, 2023

    Reference: 19 CFR 113.27(a)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2023

  22. 47.Your client wants to transport a shipment of imported avocados from the Port of Los Angeles/Long Beach to the Port of San Francisco, without appraisal or payment of duties. Which ONE of the provisions listed below governs this requested in-bond transportation?

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    Correct answer: d) 19 CFR 18.1

    Reference: 19 CFR 18.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2025

  23. 48.Which of the following is NOT a factor which is indicative of a broker showing a lack of supervision or lack of working knowledge of Customs procedures?

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    Correct answer: a) Low rate of attendance at CBP sponsored educational events compared to other brokers in the permitted district

    Reference: 19 CFR § 171, Appendix C, Part XI (C) 1, 2, 4, 6

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2021

  24. 49.A drawback claimant must furnish a properly executed drawback bond if approved for _____ privilege.

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    Correct answer: b) Accelerated payment

    Reference: 19 CFR190.92(d)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2026

  25. 50.The following types of evidence of right to make entry for importations by common carrier when merchandise is not released directly to the carrier are acceptable types of evidence EXCEPT:

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    Correct answer: b) An extract from a bill of lading or air waybill that has not been certified to be genuine by the carrier bringing the merchandise to the port of entry.

    Reference: 19 CFR 141.11

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of May 2024