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Entry and Entry Summary: practice questions · page 9

  1. 201.The port director may revoke or suspend the license of a cartman or lighterman if any of the following is found, EXCEPT:

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    Correct answer: b) His vehicle or vessel is properly marked.

    Reference: 19 CFR § 112.30(2), 19 CFR ڃ112.30 (a)1, 2, 4, 6, 9

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2021

  2. 202.Which of the following is a requirement for lawful importation of milk and cream into the United States according to the Federal Import Milk Act?

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    Correct answer: b) The person shipping or transporting the milk and cream shall have a valid permit, or its electronic equivalent, from the Department of Health and Human Services.

    Reference: 19 CFR 12.7(a)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2025

  3. 203.What status of merchandise may be manipulated, manufactured, exhibited, destroyed, or transferred from a zone, without a permit?

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    Correct answer: d) Domestic

    Reference: 19CFR146.51, 19CFR146.44(a), 19 CFR146.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2019

  4. 204.What is the Temporary Importation Bond (TIB) subheading under which the period of the bond may not exceed six months and may not be extended?

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    Correct answer: e) 9813.00.75

    Reference: 19CFR10.31 – 10.40 HTSUS Sub Chapter XIII U.S. Note 1.a

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2019

  5. 205.Prior to manipulating, manufacturing, exhibiting, or destroying merchandise admitted into a Foreign Trade Zone (FTZ), the operator of the zone shall file with CBP an application on which CBP Form?

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    Correct answer: b) CBP Form 216

    Reference: 19 CFR 146.52

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  6. 206.Unless exported or destroyed under Customs supervision prior to liquidation of the entry, articles without country of origin marking, as required, shall be subject to additional duties in the amount of:

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    Correct answer: c) 10 percent of the final appraised value

    Reference: 19 CFR 134.2

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2026

  7. 207.Which of the following is NOT a required field when a broker creates a blanket U.S. – Mexico - Canada Agreement (USMCA) certificate of origin (CBP Form 434) in the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) Portal on behalf of an importer without an ACE portal account?

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    Correct answer: b) Manufacturers Identification Code (MID)

    Reference: Business Rules and Process Document v 11 (Trade) Section 4.3

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of May 2024

  8. 208.Choose the ONE answer that correctly fills in the blank. _____ means the final computation or ascertainment of duties on entries for consumption or drawback entries.

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    Correct answer: c) Liquidation

    Reference: 19 CFR 159.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2023

  9. 209.Johnson Consolidated Freight, Inc. (JCF) is the nominal consignee for a shipment of empty glass bottles, consigned to IPA (USA), Inc. (IPA), a beer brewer. JCF has an appropriate power of attorney with IPA. JCF contracts with Knowledgeable Customs Brokers, LLC (Knowledgeable) for Knowledgeable to file the entry and entry summary as the importer of record for the shipment. Knowledgeable obtains power of attorney from IPA and files the entry and entry summary with itself as the importer of record and obligates its basic importation and entry bond. Which one of the steps below is NOT one of the steps Knowledgeable will take to be relieved of liability for increased and additional duties owed under the facts above?

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    Correct answer: b) Knowledgeable will furnish within 90 days from the time of entry copies of the power of attorney documents between Knowledgeable and JCF and Knowledgeable and IPA proving that Knowledgeable had the right to make entry under 19 CFR 141.11.

    Reference: Right to Make Entry Directive (CD 3530-002A) Section 5.1.3; 19 CFR 141.19; 19 CFR 141.20

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2026

  10. 210.Izzie Stein is the importer of record (IOR) on a shipment of goods she purchased directly from a foreign manufacturer. The shipment has estimated duties, taxes, and fees due of $5,800.00. Ms. Stein sold the merchandise to a consignee. Ms. Stein pays her customs broker the $5,800.00 owed to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) but later gets a notice that the duties were never paid. Who will CBP bill for the unpaid duties and why?

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    Correct answer: d) Ms. Stein will be billed because she is the importer of record.

    Reference: 19 CFR 141.1(b)(1)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2025

  11. 211.Which entry type code indicates a re-warehouse entry?

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    Correct answer: b) Entry type code 22

    Reference: ACE BRPD Section 12.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2026

  12. 212.Which of the following best defines "entry summary?”

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    Correct answer: a) Any other documentation or electronic submission of data necessary to enable CBP to assess duties, and collect statistics on imported merchandise, and determine whether other requirements of law and regulations are met.

    Reference: 19 CFR 141.0a(b)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2025

  13. 213.A shipment was mistakenly released to the consignee by CBP. A redelivery notice is issued by the Entry Branch for return of the good because it is prohibited. The importer has 30 days from the date of that redelivery notice to return the merchandise for exportation and/or destruction. If the importer fails to return the produce within the allotted timeframe, the importer will be in violation of which section of law listed below?

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    Correct answer: d) 19 CFR 133.46

    Reference: 19CFR133.46

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2019

  14. 214.Sean Reno Fashion (Sean Reno) is a clothing manufacturer in Chicago that imports textiles and apparel products. As part of a planned expansion of its sportwear line, Sean Reno applies to CBP for a continuous bond to secure multiple entries of merchandise over the coming year. In the calendar year prior to filing its application, Sean Reno imported merchandise under single transaction bonds at several different ports of entry. Which of the following is information that Sean Reno must include in its continuous bond application?

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    Correct answer: c) The total amount of ordinary customs duties (including any taxes required by law to be treated as duties), plus the estimated amount of any other tax or taxes on the merchandise to be collected by CBP, accruing on all merchandise Sean Reno has imported during the calendar year preceding the date of the application.

    Reference: 19 C.F.R. § 113.11(b)(1)(ii)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of May 2024

  15. 215.The Danube Trading Company (Danube Trading) arranges for the importation of monosodium glutamate (“MSG”) for customers in the U.S., including the Saucy Seasonings Corporation (Saucy Seasonings). Danube Trading is not the seller or buyer of the MSG and does not qualify as importer of record. On an entry of MSG, Danube Trading’s customs broker mistakenly listed Danube Trading as the ultimate consignee (as well the importer of record) on the entry summary instead of Saucy Seasonings, the actual owner. If Danube Trading wants to be relieved from statutory liability for the payment of increased and additional duties on the entry, it must declare at the time of the filing of the entry summary or entry documentation that it is not the actual owner of the merchandise, furnish CBP with the name and address of Saucy Seasonings, and file with CBP, either at the port of entry or electronically within ninety (90) days from the time of entry, a declaration of Saucy Seasonings acknowledging that the actual owner will pay all additional and increased duties. What is the correct form for the Saucy Seasonings declaration that Danube Trading must file with CBP?

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    Correct answer: b) CBP Form 3347

    Reference: 19 CFR 141.20

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2023

  16. 216.If CBP has detained articles for bearing copying or simulating marks, all the following would enable the importer to obtain release of the articles EXCEPT:

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    Correct answer: a) If this detention is the importer’s first offense, the importer can pay a fine equal to the value the articles would have had if they were genuine.

    Reference: 19 CFR 133.22(c)(3); 19 CFR 133.22(c)(1); 19 CFR 133.22(c)(4); 19 CFR 148.55

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2024

  17. 217.Which one of the following bonds is required to be Single Entry?

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    Correct answer: d) Production of Bill of Lading Bond

    Reference: 19 CFR 113.69, 19 CFR 113.63, 19 CFR 113.67, 19 CFR 113.73

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2018

  18. 218.Which of the following is NOT a requirement for when a center Director would allow one entry summary to be filed for multiple entries?

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    Correct answer: a) Merchandise is of the type defined in 19 CFR 132.1(e).

    Reference: 19 CFR 142.17

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2025

  19. 219.Which party’s bond is liable when merchandise is delivered directly to a container station from an importing carrier?

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    Correct answer: d) Importing carrier

    Reference: 19 CFR 19.44(a)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  20. 220.Which one of the following is exempt from duties?

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    Correct answer: a) Articles exported from the United States which are returned within 45 days after such exportation from the United States as undeliverable and which have not left the custody of the carrier or foreign customs service

    Reference: HTSUS General Note 1 & 3, 19 CFR 128.24(e), 19 CFR 145.12(b)(2) and 19 CFR 10.151 and 19 CFR 10.153

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2018

  21. 221.What is the maximum period of validity for an Admission Temporaire/Temporary Admission (ATA) carnet to be accepted?

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    Correct answer: b) The ATA carnet shall be accepted if it has a period of validity not exceeding 1 year from the date of issue.

    Reference: 19 CFR 114.23(a) Subpart C

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  22. 222.If an Activity Code 1- Basic Importation and Entry continuous bond will be transmitted to U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) pursuant to the Automated Commercial Environment (ACE) electronic bond system (eBond) test, using a CBP-approved Electronic Data Interchange (EDI), who must transmit it?

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    Correct answer: d) Surety or Surety Agent

    Reference: ACE BRPD Chapter 3, Section 3.7

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2026

  23. 223.Excessive deposits of Alcohol or Tobacco taxes cannot be refunded in cases where:

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    Correct answer: a) The tax was over paid due to misclassification of the article.

    Reference: 19 CFR § 24.36(d)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2021

  24. 224.How does a broker legally move unentered merchandise from one U.S. port to another U.S. port for exportation purposes?

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    Correct answer: d) File a transportation and exportation (T&E)

    Reference: 19 CFR 18.1(b)(4)

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of April 2022

  25. 225.When withdrawing merchandise from a bonded warehouse for transportation to another port of entry, which ONE of the following choices is NOT required on the in-bond application?

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    Correct answer: c) Visa, permit, or license information issued by the U.S. Government, foreign government or other issuing authority, relating to the merchandise.

    Reference: 19 CFR 144.36; 19 CFR 144.32; 19 CFR 18.1

    Source: U.S. Customs and Border Protection, exam of October 2024